Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 23:55
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Can you tell me something about yourself?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What caused North Korea to go poor when at first it was rich?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.